Why didn't Harry Rawling just pay Jack Mulligan the one million?

Since my English is limited, I don't quite understand this movie "Widows" (Liam Neeson - Colin Farrel).

As far as I understand :
Harry rob Jamal 2 Million.

It seems the deal with Jack Mulligan : after Harry rob Jamal 2 Million,
Harry will give Mulligan 1 Million, as in the boat Mulligan say to Harry :
I want the full amount, Harry. One Million, like we agreed.
I want that money. If not, you're gonna be alive again

So that means, Harry has not give full 1 Million to Mulligan.

Then Harry say to Mulligan:
I can get your money, but I need time.

At the boat, they also talk about a dead body Jack has to pay, the scumbag detective Fuller that get some of the money (retiring as a wealthy man) and the medical examiner to pay (maybe to shut his mouth if he found out the dead body is not Harry).

But the movie never give an explanation on how is the deal between Harry and Jack .
How many people involved (besides Harry, his 3 friends and Jack ) ?
How the 2 million (robbed from Jamal) will split ?

So this part is quite confusing to me, because it raise a question :
Assuming that between Harry and Jack , the deal is split half (Harry and his gang will get 1 million, Jack and his gang will get 1 million) Why didn't Harry just give the 1 million full to Mulligan while Harry has the other 1 million for himself alone?

In wiki it say :

"Veronica returns alone to their hideout, where Harry arrives to steal the money, needing $1 million of it to keep Mulligan quiet about his faked death".

To me, it's not clear what wiki say, because it raise a question :
A. is the agreement Harry will pay ANOTHER 1 mil for his fake death ? or

B. The agreement is 1 mil for Mulligan and Harry already give Mulligan the 1 mil, but since Mulligan has to pay the medical examiner, the dead body and the scumbag Fuller, this cause Mulligan didn't get his full 1 mil share. Which cause Mulligan threaten Harry to reveal his fake death if Harry don't give him full 1 mil share.

From what wiki said, it seems point-A answer is Yes. But from the conversation on the boat, I assume the condition is point-B. Mulligan say to Harry :
I want the full amount, Harry. One Million, like we agreed.

Mulligan didn't say :
I want the full amount, Harry. One Million, like we agreed that you will pay me 1 million for your fake death.

So to me, the agreement is :
Mulligan will get full 1 million. Harry and his gang will get full 1 million.

the agreement is NOT :
X. besides Mulligan will get 2 million full (Harry and his 3 friends get nothing), Harry also has to pay another 1 million for his fake death.

the agreement also is NOT :
Y. besides Mulligan will get his 1.5 million full (Harry and his 3 friends get 500k split to 4 people), Harry also has to pay another 1 million for his fake death.

the agreement is NOT :
Z. besides Mulligan will get 1 million full (Harry and his 3 friends get 1 mil split to 4 people), Harry also has to pay another 1 million for his fake death.

Only if the movie describe the agreement, for example like point-X agreement, then it's easy to conclude that Harry is planning to rob back Mulligan's money to pay for his 1 mil fake death ---OR--- Harry is hoping that Veronica will sell the book to Jamal for at least 1 mil, so then later on Harry will rob Veronica that 1 mil to pay his fake death as he agreed with Mulligan.

So the problem is : the movie doesn't have any explanation on how is the deal/agreement between Harry and Mulligan before Harry and his 3 friends rob Jamal.

The logic is :
P. If the agreement : Harry and his 3 friends will help Mulligan to rob 2 mil from jamal FOR FREE, and Harry still need to pay 1 mil to Mulligan for his fake death (Mulligan get total 3 mil is the agreement)
THEN Harry really need full 1 million to pay Mulligan.

Q. If the agreement : Harry and his 3 friends will rob 2 mil from Jamal and the money will split half, and Harry still need to pay 1 mil to Mulligan for his fake death (Mulligan get total 2 mil is the agreement)
THEN Harry get 1 mil for himself alone (since he kill his 3 friends), then Harry can give his share (full 1 mil) to Mulligan for his fake death.

R. If the agreement : Harry and his 3 friends will rob 2 mil from Jamal and the money for Mulligan is 1.5 mil, and for Harry and his 3 friends 500k, and Harry still need to pay 1 mil to Mulligan for his fake death (Mulligan get total 2.5 mil is the agreement)
THEN Harry get 500k for himself alone (since he kill his 3 friends), then Harry need only 500K more to pay Mulligan for his fake death.

What wiki say in the quote above lead to a conclusion that the agreement is point-P : Harry and his friends get nothing in return on that 2 mil robbery, and ALSO Harry has to pay Mulligan 1 million for his fake death. (Mulligan get total 3 mil is the agreement). Hence, Harry need $1 million of it to keep Mulligan quiet about his faked death as the wiki say.

plot-explanation widows

Best Answer

It's never clear exactly what the arrangement was, nor is it clear where the money went that Harry took with him. He's seen leaving the area after the explosion, carrying a black sack that presumably held the money. It also seems clear that Harry has shacked up with one of his crew's wife, as Veronica goes to visit her and notices Harry's flask on a table. So, we assume some of the money has been spent since the robbery.

The deal Harry makes with Mulligan is also not very clear. Did Harry agree to give Mulligan $1M and Mulligan was supposed to pay his people from that? Did Mulligan want $1M for himself, and Harry had to pay Mulligan's people? Those questions are never answered in the movie.

All we know for sure is that Harry robbed Jamal, and Jamal was running against Mulligan in an election. It's assumed that the robbery was done in an attempt to bankrupt Jamal and have him quit the election.